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What’s Up With Putting a Comma Before “Because”?

theyuniversity:

A comma doesn’t come close to ‘solving’ the problems of ambiguity in this pair of sentences. Under careful consideration it might clarify things somewhat, but anyone reading either of the sentences is liable to come away with either of the possible meanings.

Basically, it’s an ambiguous sentence with or without the comma. If you want clear meaning, then change a whole lot more than punctuation (like clearer verbs than just ‘talk to’):

Meaning 1 - I knew that I won the contest because my brother had influenced the judges.

Meaning 2 - “I knew that I won the contest, because my brother found out the result from the judges.

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Here’s a friendly reminder:

caffeinatedfeminist:

-You cannot be sexist toward men. Sexism is based on a system of oppression. You CAN be discriminatory, rude, inconsiderate, and/or prejudiced against men but you CANNOT be sexist toward them.

-You cannot be racist towards white people. Racism is based on a system of oppression. You CAN be discriminatory, rude, inconsiderate, and/or prejudiced against white people but you CANNOT be racist toward them.

This is not difficult.

Sorry to disagree, but from a linguistic perspective, I’m afraid you’re not on solid ground. Ask members of the general public to define racism and in an overwhelming majority of cases you’ll be met with a definition along the lines of: “Discrimination against/maltreatment of other people on the basis of their race, in the belief that oneself is of a superior race.” You’ll get a similar result in the case of sexism.

Language only works because as a community we have come to a collective consensus on what words mean. If people haven’t decided that words mean what you would like them to mean, then that is your bad lack, you’re going to have to use different words. It would be futile to go on using words, while having your preferred meaning in mind, and expecting other people, as a part of a community that has come to different decision on the meaning of that word, to understand what you mean.

So in the end, if people as a whole have decided (as I think that they have) that the term ‘racism’ can be used in the context of a white person being discriminated agaist, then that is a valid usage of the word.

Furthermore, even under your own preferred definition, I believe you’ve taken it a bit too far in declaring that it’s impossible to be racist towards white people. Going by your definition, then yes, it would be impossible in the wider ‘Western’ world, but I would be hesitant to declare it outright impossible in every circumstance worldwide.

(via historicalslut)

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This is really quite interesting.
Why has the creator of this image used ‘go-est’ and yet ‘fuck-eth’? I don’t expect everyone to be up to date with their Early Modern English conjugation, and to know that -est is the 2nd person singular form and -eth is the 3rd person singular. I also certainly don’t expect people to know that in the imperative mood (an order/command like in this image) that verbs would be, in fact, uninflected from their stem and in this case would just be ‘go’ and ‘fuck’.
But I might have expected someone to recognize that the verbs ‘go’ and ‘fuck’ perform an identical grammatical role in the above sentence, and would thus have the same inflection.
I suppose that, because so few people are actually going to notice anything amiss when one varies endings to affect the “Ye Olde English”-look, anything goeth.

This is really quite interesting.

Why has the creator of this image used ‘go-est’ and yet ‘fuck-eth’? I don’t expect everyone to be up to date with their Early Modern English conjugation, and to know that -est is the 2nd person singular form and -eth is the 3rd person singular. I also certainly don’t expect people to know that in the imperative mood (an order/command like in this image) that verbs would be, in fact, uninflected from their stem and in this case would just be ‘go’ and ‘fuck’.

But I might have expected someone to recognize that the verbs ‘go’ and ‘fuck’ perform an identical grammatical role in the above sentence, and would thus have the same inflection.

I suppose that, because so few people are actually going to notice anything amiss when one varies endings to affect the “Ye Olde English”-look, anything goeth.

(via defightful)

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zhk:

Dr. Hedgehog

There was a time when I liked to profligately correct people’s grammar over the internet, but that time has passed. I like to think I have matured as a grammarian.
But this, I can’t stand. Using ‘whom’ instead of ‘who’, when ‘who’ is actually the correct form in standard English makes me really shake my head. It just makes the writer look to me like an absolute fool. If you don’t understand the rules of ‘who’ versus ‘whom’, don’t bother with ‘whom’ at all. It just makes it easy on all of us. No-one reasonable nowadays is going to correct a ‘who’ to a ‘whom’. ‘Who’ is a safe bet.

zhk:

Dr. Hedgehog

There was a time when I liked to profligately correct people’s grammar over the internet, but that time has passed. I like to think I have matured as a grammarian.

But this, I can’t stand. Using ‘whom’ instead of ‘who’, when ‘who’ is actually the correct form in standard English makes me really shake my head. It just makes the writer look to me like an absolute fool. If you don’t understand the rules of ‘who’ versus ‘whom’, don’t bother with ‘whom’ at all. It just makes it easy on all of us. No-one reasonable nowadays is going to correct a ‘who’ to a ‘whom’. ‘Who’ is a safe bet.

(via kittwalker)

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Commas

onlyaworkingtitle:

upwithwhichiwillnotput:

Yes that’s right, I want to talk about commas, and ask your opinion too.

On Tuesday I received the marks for an essay I had handed, and it turned out that I had lost marks on ‘correct spelling and grammar’ which is a bit ironic since I run this blog about grammar. It turns out that what I had in fact lost marks on was supposedly missing commas in a sentence not unlike this very sentence you’re now reading. My tutor would have corrected my previous sentence to this: “…I had, in fact, lost marks…”.

This was not however an oversight on my behalf. Had I wanted commas there, I would have put them there. In my mind, the comma’s function is about reflecting where a short pause in a sentence would be, if it were spoken aloud.

In the sentence in question, and in my example above, if I had read them aloud, I would not have paused on either side of the ‘in fact’. That is why I did not use them.

My question is this: Is this non-standard English? And in an academic setting where standard English is expected, does this expectation go as far as dictating where one puts one’s commas?

I tried to respond in the response space, and hit the character limit. I tried the ask box, and hit the character limit. And so I must reblog.

My response:

I am always in favor of commas, wherever grammatically possible; however, I understand that not everyone feels the way I do about these remarkable little curls of ink. For example, some people might not even consider them remarkable! (Clearly they are wrong, for here we are, remarking upon them.)

In the case of “…I had _in fact_ lost marks…”, I consider it unquestionably grammatical to include commas (“, in fact,”), as the “in fact” is an aside from writer to reader — the sentence would be perfectly correct without it (“…I had lost marks…”). Same applies to your above sentence “This was not however an oversight on my behalf” — the “however” is an aside, and so should have parenthetical commas.

Still, as I said, I understand that not everyone loves the comma the way I do. In the case of these comma-droppers, I have conditional acceptance; as Robert Graves said, “Every English poet should master the rules of grammar before he attempts to bend or break them.” Thus, if they know the grammatical rules (which you, Up With Which I Will Not Put, most likely do), then they have the artistic license to break them to rhetorical effect. If they do not know the grammatical rules, then breaking them only makes the writers appear uneducated.

So, it comes down to: Did you break the parenthetical-comma-rule for rhetorical effect? The effect achieved is a more conversational tone — you wrote it the way you would say it, as opposed to the way the style books mandate. Is this appropriate for a formal paper? My guess is not. Thus, I would agree with the professor marking the “in fact” as needing commas; however, since, as I said, you do have a good command of grammatical rules, I wouldn’t consider it worth lowering your grade over.

I threw that sentence with ‘however’ in that post for a bit of fun, because I did have another sentence with ‘however’ in my essay which was also corrected with a couple of commas around it.

Having considered this a little bit further, I think I have more understanding of why I didn’t use commas in these circumstances. We have three versions of these sentences:

…I had lost marks…

…I had in fact lost marks…

…I had, in fact, lost marks…

I am not opposed to the third sentence, and will happily use similarly comma’d sentences in other contexts. It’s just that to me we have two levels of interruption to the first sentence - a moderate interruption without the commas, and a more significant interruption with the commas.

The commas, implying pauses on either side, give more stress to the ‘in fact’-ness of the sentence, which in this case I didn’t want - I just wanted some low-level ‘in fact’-ness. However, when I want to give more emphasis to the ‘in fact’, then I will welcome the commas with open arms.

Tags: commas
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Commas

Yes that’s right, I want to talk about commas, and ask your opinion too.

On Tuesday I received the marks for an essay I had handed, and it turned out that I had lost marks on ‘correct spelling and grammar’ which is a bit ironic since I run this blog about grammar. It turns out that what I had in fact lost marks on was supposedly missing commas in a sentence not unlike this very sentence you’re now reading. My tutor would have corrected my previous sentence to this: “…I had, in fact, lost marks…”.

This was not however an oversight on my behalf. Had I wanted commas there, I would have put them there. In my mind, the comma’s function is about reflecting where a short pause in a sentence would be, if it were spoken aloud.

In the sentence in question, and in my example above, if I had read them aloud, I would not have paused on either side of the ‘in fact’. That is why I did not use them.

My question is this: Is this non-standard English? And in an academic setting where standard English is expected, does this expectation go as far as dictating where one puts one’s commas?

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What’s Up With “Burnt” and “Burned”?

theyuniversity:

Tumblr_liolujj2di1qg238ao1_500_large

So much of the discourse on the differences between American and British (and Australian and Canadian and New Zealand and Indian and South African etc.) English frustrates me.

There are little things called subtlety and complexity and nuance. Things are not black and white. As well as all the cloudying of the waters from the influences recently wrought by the international nature of the internet, things have never been UK=THIS and US=THAT. ‘Burnt’ may not occur in American English, but both ‘burned’ and ‘burnt’ (and all the others in this pattern) coexist in many varieties of English, including the Britishest of British English.

Same goes for ‘realise’ versus ‘realize’ and all the other -ise/-ize ones. Same goes for all number of other examples.

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"A byrde yn honde ys better than three yn the wode."

Earliest known form (c.1530) of the familiar proverb “A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush”

I find particularly interesting the spelling ‘yn’ for ‘in’.

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ne-yo:

Swagger

Je swagge
Tu swagges
Il swagge
Nous swaggons
Vous swaggez
Ils swaggent

Jokes based around French grammar are the best.

(Source: chekhov, via youlikecake)

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nudityandnerdery:

nekomarie:

I just said them all. UGH. I love language.

Did the exact same thing. And, really, if you don’t emphasize one particular word, there’s a base, eighth meaning.

This thing irritates me mildly. I think my problem with it is that it seems to imply that there’s something special about this sentence when there isn’t really. This is just how language works! You can extract different meanings from any sentence by varying your emphasis. It’s just a fundamental fact of spoken language that stress affects the meaning conveyed. Yes it’s a vaguely interesting fact, but I don’t think it’s something for people to be gobsmacked by, seeing as we all utilise variation of stress in our language everyday.

nudityandnerdery:

nekomarie:

I just said them all. UGH. I love language.

Did the exact same thing. And, really, if you don’t emphasize one particular word, there’s a base, eighth meaning.

This thing irritates me mildly. I think my problem with it is that it seems to imply that there’s something special about this sentence when there isn’t really. This is just how language works! You can extract different meanings from any sentence by varying your emphasis. It’s just a fundamental fact of spoken language that stress affects the meaning conveyed. Yes it’s a vaguely interesting fact, but I don’t think it’s something for people to be gobsmacked by, seeing as we all utilise variation of stress in our language everyday.

(Source: ddanielmaitlandd, via planetfool)